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November 06, 2004

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First, I am a Caucasian, 58 year-old grandma who grew up in a primarily white, mildly prejudiced area. I am a “fence-sitter” (the politician's nightmare) who usually votes when I determine which candidate speaks best to the greatest percentage of my pet issues at the time.

I am the wife of a Viet Nam vet who spent the last year of my husband's service to his country married to him, and living on a Navy base. I admit--I am predisposed to like McCain.

I have a question about this “landslide” business. I Googled "landslide election" and it said "overwhelming" majority. Hmmm. Okay.

Then another article said Bush had a landslide at 52% while the higher level recently seems to have been 61%--but then the Electoral College came into it.....

Then I read that 52% would NOT constitute a landslide or mandate for Obama, even if he gets 320 Electoral College votes. I am really puzzled. Why?

I am delighted that our country has come to the point where we can ignore race to the extent that an African American will be elected President, as long as we all go to vote. But this "landslide" question...

I have a black (as she refers to herself) friend who was not allowed to swim in the "public" swimming pool in the afternoon as a child. "Colored" people could only swim in the morning, you know. This was ABOVE the Mason-Dixon Line.

Considering the disgusting "Hussein"- terrorist, preacher-terrorist slurs thrown his way (which DOES play to some percentage of the people looking for a politically correct way to voice their bigotry), how could ANY win by Obama not be considered a remarkable landslide or mandate? 15% of the population cannot elect a president--nor can they really compensate for those people who remain bigots in our country (The proof they exist is there if you only look at the white supremacists who plotted to kill Obama!). ONLY could a black man (African American) be elected if a majority of people--including a huge chunk of the "white" population--set aside any prejudice and vote for what is right, for a qualified candidate.

Given his starting from behind, then, why will Obama's election, if he "only" gets 52% of the popular vote, NOT be a landslide? Even if he does not get the over 300+ Electoral College votes, it must SURELY be considered a landslide or mandate.

Incidentally, I did not vote for Mr. Obama in the primary. After his nomination, I regarded the man and he has EARNED my vote.

I compliment his running one of the most gentlemanly run campaigns I have ever seen. And, as I am 58, I have seen a few.

My first remembered election was that of “that” Catholic, John Kennedy!

Kennedy was enthralling. We watched him on TV and he was energetic but calm. He was eloquent and smart. Sound familiar? So is Obama. (BTW, I later found out a few things I didn't like about Kennedy's personal life, but that didn't--to this day--detract from my regard for his leadership abilities.)

Yes, I have voted Democratic. And Republican. And ONE year I refused to vote at all. I know! I am a fence-sitting politician's nightmare!

So, if anyone has a decisive answer to this landslide question, given the specifics of THIS campaign, please give me some insight.


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